Agree; also this post doesn’t seem to address e.g. the fact that the relative sizes of the social classes used to be quite different, and that today there exists a sizeable middle class rather than society being much more starkly divided into the poor vs. the wealthy.
[EDIT: replaced Claude’s estimate of social class sizes with the following:]
E.g. this paper cites economist Thomas Piketty’s research as the original source, shows the share of property owned by the middle 40% of the population in Britain going from 10% to 40% between 1780 and 2015, with the top 10% of the population had 85-90% of the property up to around 1940.
Piketty (2020) has also been able to provide more distributional detail for the two most recent centuries, as shown in his Figure 5.4, reproduced here with permission (Piketty, 2020, p. 195). His estimates show that 1780–1800 saw a slight decline (from 89% to 86%) in the wealth proportion of the top 10% of private property holders, and an equivalent significant rise (from 10% to 13%) in the wealth held by the ‘middle 40%’, with the bottom 50% remaining at little more than 1% [...]
From [1910], however, the wealth of the top 10% began a gradual (1910–42) and then precipitate (1942–90) decline. By 1990, their share of national wealth had been almost cut in half to 48%, while the share of the ‘patrimonial middle class’ – the next 40% – had risen to 42%. Even the lowest 50% now had a 10% share in the nation’s wealth, while the top 1% had ‘only’ 18%.
So even if you buy the argument that there’s a meaningful sense in which poverty hasn’t been eliminated, the fraction of people who are middle class rather than poor has gone drastically up. And maybe a UBI won’t be able to push poverty down to 0%, just as past progress hasn’t, but it could quite possibly contribute another significant reduction.
Agree that a real source would be better but I think a Claude-source is better than nothing at all, especially in a case where the point is just to get the rough magnitudes and the details don’t need to be exact. I’m not sure if editing my comment to just the first paragraph would be an improvement.
We’ve all seen the reports on how LLMs get good results on standardized exams and tests of general knowledge, so on this kind of question I’d presume it to be basically reliable (again, as long as we’re talking just rough estimates and magnitudes, and take care not to ask leading questions). If my comment had instead included my own Fermi calculation or a random Wikipedia link, I’m guessing that that would have been more accepted, even though I doubt it would have been more reliable.