[Question] How would we check if “Mathematicians are generally more Law Abiding?”

In Lo­cal Val­idity, Eliezer notes:

But I would ven­ture a guess and hy­poth­e­sis that you are bet­ter off buy­ing a used car from a ran­dom math­e­mat­i­cian than a ran­dom non-math­e­mat­i­cian, even af­ter con­trol­ling for IQ. The rea­son­ing be­ing that math­e­mat­i­ci­ans are peo­ple whose sense of Law was strong enough to be ap­pro­pri­ated for proofs, and that this will cor­re­late, if im­perfectly, with math­e­mat­i­ci­ans abid­ing by what they see as The Law in other places as well. I could be wrong, and would be in­ter­ested in see­ing the re­sults of any study like this if it were ever done. (But no stud­ies on self-re­ports of crim­i­nal be­hav­ior, please. Un­less there’s some rea­son to be­lieve that the self-re­port met­ric isn’t mea­sur­ing “hon­esty times crim­i­nal­ity” rather than “crim­i­nal­ity”.)

I’m guess­ing such a study hasn’t been done, but it seems like the sort of thing you should be able to ac­tu­ally go and check.

I’m in­ter­ested in both:

  • What is the ex­pen­sive, im­prac­ti­cal study you could hy­po­thet­i­cally run that would give strong ev­i­dence about this ques­tion?

  • What’s the cheap­est, prac­ti­cal study we could run that would provide at least some mean­ingful data about it?

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