One can argue about whether, in theory, there’s a difference there or if true randomness exists. But I think that it’s irrelevant and that practically speaking, there is a difference. In the case where collision is actually going to happen, more epistemic uncertainty (i.e. worse measurement data) cannot change that fact, but more aleatory variability (i.e. applying random forces to the satellites) can actually make them less likely to collide. Asking whether the “random” forces applied could theoretically be known does not change that fact.
Similarly, in the Knox example I gave above, it made sense for LW readers to say 35% chance of guilt (because they haven’t investigated) and it also made sense for komponsito to say 1/1000 chance (because he had). LW readers were not saying that more than 1 out of 3 times where the evidence looked the way it did, the accused was guilty; they were just expressing the fact that they had not looked at the evidence. Komponsito was saying that the accused is guilty 1 time out of a thousand, because he had looked at it.
Yeah, I think that’s exactly the point?