What’s the reason to think EA Funds (other than the global health and development one) currently funges heavily with GiveWell recommended charities? My guess would have been that that increased donations to GiveWell’s recommended charities would not cause many other donors (including Open Phil or Good Ventures) to give instead to orgs like those supported by the Long-Term Future, EA Community, or Animal Welfare EA Funds.
In particular, to me this seems in tension with Open Phil’s last public writing on it’s current thinking about how much to give to GW recommendations versus these other cause areas (“world views” in Holden’s terminology). In his January “Update on Cause Prioritization at Open Philanthropy,” Holden wrote:
“We will probably recommend that a cluster of ‘long-termist’ buckets collectively receive the largest allocation: at least 50% of all available capital. . . .
We will likely recommend allocating something like 10% of available capital to a “straightforward charity” bucket (described more below), which will likely correspond to supporting GiveWell recommendations for the near future.”
There are some slight complications here but overall it doesn’t seem to me that Open Phil/GV’s giving to long-termist areas is very sensitive to other donors’ decisions about giving to GW’s recommended charities. Contra Ben H, I therefore think it does currently make sense for donors to spend attention distinguishing between EA Funds and GW’s recommendations.
For what it’s worth, there might be a stronger case that EA Funds funges against long-termist/EA community/Animal welfare grants that Open Phil would otherwise make but I think that’s actually an effect with substantially different consequences.
[Disclosure—I formerly worked at GiveWell and Open Phil but haven’t worked there for over a year and I don’t think anything in this comment is based on any specific inside information.]
[Edited to make my disclosure slightly more specific/nuanced.]
[I’m not an expert.]
My understanding is that SARS-CoV-1 is generally treated as a BSL-3 pathogen or a BSL-2 pathogen (for routine diagnostics and other relatively safe work) and not BSL-4. At the time of the outbreak, SARS-CoV-2 would have been a random animal coronavirus that hadn’t yet infected humans, so I’d be surprised if it had more stringent requirements.
Your OP currently states: “a lab studying that class of viruses, of which there is currently only one.” If I’m right that you’re not currently confident this is the case, it might be worth adding some kind of caveat or epistemic status flag or something.
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Some evidence:
A 2017 news article in Nature about the Wuhan Institute of Virology suggests China doesn’t require a BSL-4 for SARS-CoV-1. “Future plans include studying the pathogen that causes SARS, which also doesn’t require a BSL-4 lab.”
CDC’s current interim biosafety guidelines on working with SARS-CoV-2 recommend BSL-3 or BSL-2.
WHO biosafety guidelines from 2003 recommend BSL-3 or BSL-2 for SARS-CoV-1. I don’t know if these are up to date.
Outdated CDC guidelines recommend BSL-3 or BSL-2 for SARS-CoV-1. Couldn’t very quickly Google anything current.