[Question] Are computationally complex algorithms expensive to have, expensive to operate, or both?

Specifically, let’s say you are handed a Boolean 3-sat problem, and you finally managed to finish solving the 3-SAT instance you are given by a superpolynomially large algorithm.

Now, you are given another Boolean 3-SAT problem. Can you amortize the complexity costs of 3-SAT problems, or does each 3-SAT problem instance require you to pay the full complexity cost of the algorithm you run?

To give an analogy for the question I’m asking, I’m trying to determine whether computationally hard problems are more CapEx dominated, and the OpEx of running each particular instance of 3-sat is low, making it more like an investment, or perhaps buying things, or is it more like a high OpEx, where each instance of a 3-SAT problem remains just as expensive and can’t be amortized, much like renting something.

Equivalently, the question is how much you are able to amortize the costs of solving similar problems, like 3-SAT for NP-complete problems or True Quantified Boolean Formulas for PSPACE-complete problems.

Challenge: If you are able to show that you can reduce computational complexity costs via amortizing the instances of a problem, how far up the complexity hierarchy does this go? How complex does a problem need to be before you can’t amortize the costs of a computationally complex problem anymore?