I mean something like the standard meaning of ” novel prediction”. Like black holes are a novel prediction of GR
Sure “why is there experience at all” a broad question. Particularly since you wouldn’t expect to find irreducible subjectivity in a physical universe. And its another question that isn’t adressed by Accpeting Materialism.
how and why do brain states match up to brain states”
Yes, but you can’t make that work in practice. You can;t describe a quale by describig the related brain state.
For us, given our igonrance, brains states and qualia are informationally and semantically independent, even
if they are ontologically the same thing. WHich is anothe way of saying that identity theory doens’t explain much..
Perhaps you mean something special by “sensory modalities” ?
Particularly since you wouldn’t expect to find irreducible subjectivity in a physical universe.
People keep asserting that and it’s not obvious. Why would you not expect a being in a “physical” (Q1. what does this mean?) universe, to have “subjective experience” (Q2. what does that mean?)? (Q3 is the question itself)
If “physcical” is cashed out as “understandable by the methods of the physcal sciences”, then it follows that
“everything is physical” means “everything is understandable from an extenal, objective perspective”. If that is the
case, the only kind of subjectivity that could exist is a kind that can be reduced to physics, a kind whch is ultimately objective, in the way that the “mental”, for physicalists, is a subset of the physical.
That “irreducible” part is bothering me. What does it mean? I can see that it could take us out of what “materialism” would predict, but I can’t see it doing that without also taking us out of the set of phenomena we actually observe. (the meanings of irreducible that materialism prohibits are also not actually observed, AFAICT).
Anyways, getting downvoted, going to tap out now, I’ve made my case with the program and whatnot, no one wants to read the rest of this. Apologies for the bandwidth and time.
Irreducile as in reducible as in reductionism. How can you spend any time on LW and not know what reductionism is? Reducibility is not observed except the form of explanations pubished in journals and gi vn in classrooms. Irreducibility is likewise not observed.
I mean something like the standard meaning of ” novel prediction”. Like black holes are a novel prediction of GR
I don’t know enough neurobiology to offer up any novel predictions off the top of my head; here are some random links off of Google that look somewhat interesting (disclaimer: I haven’t read them yet). In general, though, the reduction of qualia directly to brain states has already yielded some useful applications in the fields of color theory (apparently, color perception is affected by culture, f.ex. Russians can discern more colors than Americans), audio compression (f.ex. ye olde MP3), and synthetic senses (people embedding magnets under their skin to sense magnetic fields).
And its another question that isn’t adressed by Accpeting Materialism.
Why not ? I do not believe that subjectivity is “irreducible”.
For us, given our igonrance, brains states and qualia are informationally and semantically independent, even if they are ontologically the same thing.
I’m not sure what this means. I mean, yes, given our ignorance, the Moon is a small, dim light source high up in the sky; but today we know better.
I mean sight is one modality hearing another.
How is this different from saying, “sight and sound are captured by different organs and processed by different sub-structures in the brain, thus leading to distinct experiences” ?
Believeing in materialism does not reduce subjectviity, and neither does believing in the reducibility of subjectivity.
I have no idea what this means. Believing or disbelieving in things generally doesn’t poof them in or out of existence, but seeing as neither of us here are omniscient, I’m not sure why you’d bring it up.
Do you believe that subjective experiences are “irreducible” ? If so, you are making a very strong existential claim, and you need to provide more evidence than you’ve done so far.
That kind of depends on what the question is, and you still haven’t told me. If the question is, “who makes the most delicious cupcakes”, then Materialism is probably not the answer. If the question is, “how do you account for the irreducibility of subjective experience”, then Materialism is not the answer either, since you have not convinced me that subjective experience is irreducible, and thus the answer is “mu”.
I haven’t told you because they haven’t told me. Which is not surprising, since thinking about what the questions are tends to reveal that materaiism doens’t answer most of them.
Ok, so there are some questions that materialism doesn’t answer, but you don’t know what those questions are, or why it doesn’t answer them ? Why are we still talking about this, then ?
I know what the questions materialism doesn’t answer are. I’ve mentioned them repeatedly. I don’t know what the questions materialism does answer are, ebcause the true Believers wont say.
I mean something like the standard meaning of ” novel prediction”. Like black holes are a novel prediction of GR
Sure “why is there experience at all” a broad question. Particularly since you wouldn’t expect to find irreducible subjectivity in a physical universe. And its another question that isn’t adressed by Accpeting Materialism.
Yes, but you can’t make that work in practice. You can;t describe a quale by describig the related brain state. For us, given our igonrance, brains states and qualia are informationally and semantically independent, even if they are ontologically the same thing. WHich is anothe way of saying that identity theory doens’t explain much..
I mean sight is one modality hearing another.
People keep asserting that and it’s not obvious. Why would you not expect a being in a “physical” (Q1. what does this mean?) universe, to have “subjective experience” (Q2. what does that mean?)? (Q3 is the question itself)
Please respond
If “physcical” is cashed out as “understandable by the methods of the physcal sciences”, then it follows that “everything is physical” means “everything is understandable from an extenal, objective perspective”. If that is the case, the only kind of subjectivity that could exist is a kind that can be reduced to physics, a kind whch is ultimately objective, in the way that the “mental”, for physicalists, is a subset of the physical.
Ok.
What does such a statement predict wrt subjective experience?
please respond
I have said it predicts that there is no irreducible subjective experience.
That “irreducible” part is bothering me. What does it mean? I can see that it could take us out of what “materialism” would predict, but I can’t see it doing that without also taking us out of the set of phenomena we actually observe. (the meanings of irreducible that materialism prohibits are also not actually observed, AFAICT).
Anyways, getting downvoted, going to tap out now, I’ve made my case with the program and whatnot, no one wants to read the rest of this. Apologies for the bandwidth and time.
Irreducile as in reducible as in reductionism. How can you spend any time on LW and not know what reductionism is? Reducibility is not observed except the form of explanations pubished in journals and gi vn in classrooms. Irreducibility is likewise not observed.
I don’t know enough neurobiology to offer up any novel predictions off the top of my head; here are some random links off of Google that look somewhat interesting (disclaimer: I haven’t read them yet). In general, though, the reduction of qualia directly to brain states has already yielded some useful applications in the fields of color theory (apparently, color perception is affected by culture, f.ex. Russians can discern more colors than Americans), audio compression (f.ex. ye olde MP3), and synthetic senses (people embedding magnets under their skin to sense magnetic fields).
Why not ? I do not believe that subjectivity is “irreducible”.
I’m not sure what this means. I mean, yes, given our ignorance, the Moon is a small, dim light source high up in the sky; but today we know better.
How is this different from saying, “sight and sound are captured by different organs and processed by different sub-structures in the brain, thus leading to distinct experiences” ?
Bear in mind that what is important here is the prediction of experience.
Believeing in materialism does not reduce subjectviity, and neither does believing in the reducibility of subjectivity.
Yep. Explanation first, then identitfication.
I have no idea what this means. Believing or disbelieving in things generally doesn’t poof them in or out of existence, but seeing as neither of us here are omniscient, I’m not sure why you’d bring it up.
Do you believe that subjective experiences are “irreducible” ? If so, you are making a very strong existential claim, and you need to provide more evidence than you’ve done so far.
People keep telling me that Accpeting Materialism is The Answer. You don’t beleive that, don’t. But people keep tellig me.
That kind of depends on what the question is, and you still haven’t told me. If the question is, “who makes the most delicious cupcakes”, then Materialism is probably not the answer. If the question is, “how do you account for the irreducibility of subjective experience”, then Materialism is not the answer either, since you have not convinced me that subjective experience is irreducible, and thus the answer is “mu”.
I haven’t told you because they haven’t told me. Which is not surprising, since thinking about what the questions are tends to reveal that materaiism doens’t answer most of them.
Ok, so there are some questions that materialism doesn’t answer, but you don’t know what those questions are, or why it doesn’t answer them ? Why are we still talking about this, then ?
I know what the questions materialism doesn’t answer are. I’ve mentioned them repeatedly. I don’t know what the questions materialism does answer are, ebcause the true Believers wont say.