Particularly since you wouldn’t expect to find irreducible subjectivity in a physical universe.
People keep asserting that and it’s not obvious. Why would you not expect a being in a “physical” (Q1. what does this mean?) universe, to have “subjective experience” (Q2. what does that mean?)? (Q3 is the question itself)
If “physcical” is cashed out as “understandable by the methods of the physcal sciences”, then it follows that
“everything is physical” means “everything is understandable from an extenal, objective perspective”. If that is the
case, the only kind of subjectivity that could exist is a kind that can be reduced to physics, a kind whch is ultimately objective, in the way that the “mental”, for physicalists, is a subset of the physical.
That “irreducible” part is bothering me. What does it mean? I can see that it could take us out of what “materialism” would predict, but I can’t see it doing that without also taking us out of the set of phenomena we actually observe. (the meanings of irreducible that materialism prohibits are also not actually observed, AFAICT).
Anyways, getting downvoted, going to tap out now, I’ve made my case with the program and whatnot, no one wants to read the rest of this. Apologies for the bandwidth and time.
Irreducile as in reducible as in reductionism. How can you spend any time on LW and not know what reductionism is? Reducibility is not observed except the form of explanations pubished in journals and gi vn in classrooms. Irreducibility is likewise not observed.
People keep asserting that and it’s not obvious. Why would you not expect a being in a “physical” (Q1. what does this mean?) universe, to have “subjective experience” (Q2. what does that mean?)? (Q3 is the question itself)
Please respond
If “physcical” is cashed out as “understandable by the methods of the physcal sciences”, then it follows that “everything is physical” means “everything is understandable from an extenal, objective perspective”. If that is the case, the only kind of subjectivity that could exist is a kind that can be reduced to physics, a kind whch is ultimately objective, in the way that the “mental”, for physicalists, is a subset of the physical.
Ok.
What does such a statement predict wrt subjective experience?
please respond
I have said it predicts that there is no irreducible subjective experience.
That “irreducible” part is bothering me. What does it mean? I can see that it could take us out of what “materialism” would predict, but I can’t see it doing that without also taking us out of the set of phenomena we actually observe. (the meanings of irreducible that materialism prohibits are also not actually observed, AFAICT).
Anyways, getting downvoted, going to tap out now, I’ve made my case with the program and whatnot, no one wants to read the rest of this. Apologies for the bandwidth and time.
Irreducile as in reducible as in reductionism. How can you spend any time on LW and not know what reductionism is? Reducibility is not observed except the form of explanations pubished in journals and gi vn in classrooms. Irreducibility is likewise not observed.