Sorry to be persistent, but can you confirm that this means you do not claim markets in general converge to p(A|do(B))? That’s my central claim, so when you state that I’m wrong, the obvious interpretation would be that that you believe that central claim is wrong. In your post, you don’t identify what mistake supposedly exists, so I’d like to confirm if you’re actually claiming to refute my central claim or if, rather, you’re arguing that it doesn’t matter.
You say that markets give evidential conditionals while decisions want causal conditionals. For this comment, I’m not taking a position on which conditional we want for decisions. I’m just saying that both trades and the decision advised should use the same conditional, but I’m not saying which one that is.
Sorry to be persistent, but can you confirm that this means you do not claim markets in general converge to p(A|do(B))? That’s my central claim, so when you state that I’m wrong, the obvious interpretation would be that that you believe that central claim is wrong. In your post, you don’t identify what mistake supposedly exists, so I’d like to confirm if you’re actually claiming to refute my central claim or if, rather, you’re arguing that it doesn’t matter.
You say that markets give evidential conditionals while decisions want causal conditionals. For this comment, I’m not taking a position on which conditional we want for decisions. I’m just saying that both trades and the decision advised should use the same conditional, but I’m not saying which one that is.