[Question] Why must plausibilities be represented using real numbers?

Professor Jaynes writes:

Page 17 of his book
Page 656 of his book

Why must degrees of plausibility be represented using real numbers when there are alternative number systems, which don’t have 1-to-1 correspondence to the reals, that satisfy transitivity and universal comparability?

Kevin S. Van Horn writes in his paper, “Constructing a Logic of Plausible Inference: A Guide to Cox’s Theorem”:

Page 10 of the paper

What’s so special about ? If we want our theory to have no holes then why don’t we use hyperreals or complex numbers? They also satisfy transitivity and universal comparability and I would argue that they have less holes than

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