Ey acknowledges that P(A|B) != P(A), ey just disputes that this can be called induction. This seems pointless to me; Bayesians can just define induction as cases where P(A|B) != P(A) and avoid this kind of word game.
Ey acknowledges that P(A|B) != P(A), ey just disputes that this can be called induction. This seems pointless to me; Bayesians can just define induction as cases where P(A|B) != P(A) and avoid this kind of word game.