I wonder what the downside of assuming it is the median, instead of the median in each group, for the purpose of writing posts is. And if there’s a convenient statistical measure of that.
ETA: If one assumed that, we’d figure that our posts would be read by professional programmer, who is a technical undergrad, who majored in CS, and took at least a course in economics, and probability, and read the sequences. If we assumed no correlation and treated the ratios as probabilities, then multiplied them together, the chance of a reader being exactly that would be 2.4%. The chance of them having at least that knowledge would be about 12%.* I was asking whether it’s actually higher or lower than that based on the survey data.
I wonder what the downside of assuming it is the median, instead of the median in each group, for the purpose of writing posts is. And if there’s a convenient statistical measure of that.
ETA: If one assumed that, we’d figure that our posts would be read by professional programmer, who is a technical undergrad, who majored in CS, and took at least a course in economics, and probability, and read the sequences. If we assumed no correlation and treated the ratios as probabilities, then multiplied them together, the chance of a reader being exactly that would be 2.4%. The chance of them having at least that knowledge would be about 12%.* I was asking whether it’s actually higher or lower than that based on the survey data.
*(.504+.252)(1-.236-.195)(1-.089-.297)(1-.134)(.537+.272+.138)(.537)=0.11631737422