Intuitively, it’d be overriding preferences in 1 (but only if pre-exiert humans generally approve of the existence of post-exiert humans. If post-exiert humans had significant enough value drift that humans would willingly avoid situations that cause exiert, then 1 wouldn’t be a preference override),
wouldn’t in 2 (but only if the AI informs humans that [weird condition]->[exiert] first),
would in 3 for lust and nostalgia(because there are lots of post-[emotion] people who approve of the existence of the emotion, and pre-[emotion] people don’t seem to regard post-[emotion] people with horror) but not for intense pain (because neither post-pain people nor pre-pain people endorse its presence)
wouldn’t in 4 for lust and nostalgia, and would for pain, for basically the inverse reasons
and wouldn’t be overriding preferences in 5 (but only if pre-exiert humans generally approve of the existence of post-exiert humans)
Ok, what rule am I using here? It seems to be something like “if both pre-[experience] and post-[experience] people don’t regard it as very bad to undergo [experience] or the associated value changes, then it is overriding human preferences to remove the option of undergoing [experience], and if pre-[experience] or post-[experience] people regard it as very bad to undergo [experience] or the associated value changes, then it is not overriding human preferences to remove the option of undergoing [experience]”
Intuitively, it’d be overriding preferences in 1 (but only if pre-exiert humans generally approve of the existence of post-exiert humans. If post-exiert humans had significant enough value drift that humans would willingly avoid situations that cause exiert, then 1 wouldn’t be a preference override),
wouldn’t in 2 (but only if the AI informs humans that [weird condition]->[exiert] first),
would in 3 for lust and nostalgia(because there are lots of post-[emotion] people who approve of the existence of the emotion, and pre-[emotion] people don’t seem to regard post-[emotion] people with horror) but not for intense pain (because neither post-pain people nor pre-pain people endorse its presence)
wouldn’t in 4 for lust and nostalgia, and would for pain, for basically the inverse reasons
and wouldn’t be overriding preferences in 5 (but only if pre-exiert humans generally approve of the existence of post-exiert humans)
Ok, what rule am I using here? It seems to be something like “if both pre-[experience] and post-[experience] people don’t regard it as very bad to undergo [experience] or the associated value changes, then it is overriding human preferences to remove the option of undergoing [experience], and if pre-[experience] or post-[experience] people regard it as very bad to undergo [experience] or the associated value changes, then it is not overriding human preferences to remove the option of undergoing [experience]”