The Greeks and Romans didn’t practice chattel slavery (with serious legal and social limitations on manumission). So it’s not surprising that they were able to trust slaves to a degree unthinkable in the Antebellum South.
When I’ve heard experts talk about about the differences between ancient slavery and antebellum slavery, “chattel slavery” was used exclusively to refer to the latter—which was also described as harsher (measured by the difference between slave and typical underclass).
But I can’t find any cites to support my previous understanding of the difference between ancient and antebellum slavery. Adjusting beliefs accordingly.
The Greeks and Romans didn’t practice chattel slavery (with serious legal and social limitations on manumission). So it’s not surprising that they were able to trust slaves to a degree unthinkable in the Antebellum South.
What definition of “chattel slavery” are you using? By the standard definition (slaves can be bought and sold) the Greek and Roman practice qualifies.
Apparently, a really stupid definition.
When I’ve heard experts talk about about the differences between ancient slavery and antebellum slavery, “chattel slavery” was used exclusively to refer to the latter—which was also described as harsher (measured by the difference between slave and typical underclass).
But I can’t find any cites to support my previous understanding of the difference between ancient and antebellum slavery. Adjusting beliefs accordingly.