I’m not sure I follow. what is the mechanics that “collude” implies in this proposal? Just a reduction in cost for the stronger preferences (if I spend 16 for 4 votes, and you spend 4 for 2 votes, I get a discount to 14, which is 9 for 3 votes and a gift to you of 5 so you can also spend 9 for 3 votes)?
Or perhaps some form of enforced trade? If I spend 16 on issue A and 4 on issue B, and you’re doing the reverse, it gets automatically recalculated as if we both spent 9 on A and B—same votes, but we each spend 2 units less (or more votes for same price, if fractional votes are allowed).
A specific worked example with just a few participants would help a lot. And might even answer your question directly as to “what would happen”. My suspicion is it would move the equilibrium closer to fixed-cost cumulative voting.
I’m not sure I follow. what is the mechanics that “collude” implies in this proposal? Just a reduction in cost for the stronger preferences (if I spend 16 for 4 votes, and you spend 4 for 2 votes, I get a discount to 14, which is 9 for 3 votes and a gift to you of 5 so you can also spend 9 for 3 votes)?
Or perhaps some form of enforced trade? If I spend 16 on issue A and 4 on issue B, and you’re doing the reverse, it gets automatically recalculated as if we both spent 9 on A and B—same votes, but we each spend 2 units less (or more votes for same price, if fractional votes are allowed).
A specific worked example with just a few participants would help a lot. And might even answer your question directly as to “what would happen”. My suspicion is it would move the equilibrium closer to fixed-cost cumulative voting.
Yep that’s my next step if no one “just knows” or links to a paper. :D
I was thinking about enforced trades, more votes for the same price (fractional is allowed).