His argument seems to be that since CP violation remains a reversible process, it cannot possibly explain why there is less entropy on one side of time than on the other.
[actually, maybe it isn’t that clear—he might just be saying that no one has shown any connection, not that there could not be one]
The bolded text in the article is ‘has absolutely nothing to do with that arrow of time’. This is accurately (if excessively tersely) summarizes the article; no hedging is necessary.
Here is Sean Carroll discussing at least a related question.
His argument seems to be that since CP violation remains a reversible process, it cannot possibly explain why there is less entropy on one side of time than on the other.
[actually, maybe it isn’t that clear—he might just be saying that no one has shown any connection, not that there could not be one]
The bolded text in the article is ‘has absolutely nothing to do with that arrow of time’. This is accurately (if excessively tersely) summarizes the article; no hedging is necessary.