the questions “why did the past have so little entropy” and “why does the present have so much more matter than antimatter” might be related
Yeah, I wondered (idly—I don’t know enough physics for anything more to be worth while) about that too. I don’t suppose anyone reading this is a physicist who can say whether there’s anything nontrivial likely to be going on here?
His argument seems to be that since CP violation remains a reversible process, it cannot possibly explain why there is less entropy on one side of time than on the other.
[actually, maybe it isn’t that clear—he might just be saying that no one has shown any connection, not that there could not be one]
The bolded text in the article is ‘has absolutely nothing to do with that arrow of time’. This is accurately (if excessively tersely) summarizes the article; no hedging is necessary.
Yeah, I wondered (idly—I don’t know enough physics for anything more to be worth while) about that too. I don’t suppose anyone reading this is a physicist who can say whether there’s anything nontrivial likely to be going on here?
Here is Sean Carroll discussing at least a related question.
His argument seems to be that since CP violation remains a reversible process, it cannot possibly explain why there is less entropy on one side of time than on the other.
[actually, maybe it isn’t that clear—he might just be saying that no one has shown any connection, not that there could not be one]
The bolded text in the article is ‘has absolutely nothing to do with that arrow of time’. This is accurately (if excessively tersely) summarizes the article; no hedging is necessary.