There are neighborhoods in Indian cities that are already over 60%.
This doesn’t empirically hold up.
It would if those neighbourhoods are very homogeneous in terms of connectivity. Why would their (in)homogeneity be similar to European countries?
There are neighborhoods in Indian cities that are already over 60%.
This doesn’t empirically hold up.
It would if those neighbourhoods are very homogeneous in terms of connectivity. Why would their (in)homogeneity be similar to European countries?