AndyCossyleon comments on Generalizing From One Example

AndyCossyleon 25 Aug 2010 17:19 UTC
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If you know the derivative at 0 is 1, then you know the value of pi… just sayin’.
- RobinZ 26 Aug 2010 22:30 UTC
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  That’s not strictly true, seeing as...
  
  %5En}{(2n+1)!}\,x%5E{2n+1})
  
  ...but I agree that general-shape + derivative-at-zero is not really enough to form estimate of pi.