If I’m understanding you correctly, I think you’re indeed understanding me correctly :)
I’m saying, as per Bostrom’s definition, that information hazards are risks of harms, with the risks typically being evaluated ex ante and subjectively/epistemically (in the sense in which those terms are used in relation to probability). In some cases the harm won’t actually occur. In some cases a fully informed agent might have been able to say with certain that the risk wouldn’t have ended up occurring. But based on what we knew, there was a risk (in some hypothetical situation), and that means there was an information hazard.
If I’m understanding you correctly, I think you’re indeed understanding me correctly :)
I’m saying, as per Bostrom’s definition, that information hazards are risks of harms, with the risks typically being evaluated ex ante and subjectively/epistemically (in the sense in which those terms are used in relation to probability). In some cases the harm won’t actually occur. In some cases a fully informed agent might have been able to say with certain that the risk wouldn’t have ended up occurring. But based on what we knew, there was a risk (in some hypothetical situation), and that means there was an information hazard.