It’s almost a month since we started this discussion, and it’s a bit of a struggle to remember what’s important and what’s incidental. So first, a back-to-basics statement from me.
Colors do exist, appearances do exist; that’s nonnegotiable. That they do not exist in an ontology of “nothing but particles in space” is also, fundamentally, nonnegotiable. I will engage in debates as to whether this is so, but only because people are so amazingly reluctant to see it, and the implication that their favorite materialistic theories of mind actually involve property dualism, in which color (for example) is tied to a particular structure or behavior of particles in the brain, but can’t be identified with it.
We aren’t like the ancient atomists who only had an informal concept of the world as atoms in a void, we have mathematical theories of physics, so a logical further question is whether these mathematical theories can be interpreted so that some of the entities they posit can be identified with color, with “experiences”, and so on.
Here I’d say there are two further important facts. First, an experience is a whole and has to be tackled as a whole. Patches of color are just a part of a multi-sensory whole, which in turn is just the sensory aspect of an experience which also has a conceptual element, temporal flow, a cognitive frame locating current events in a larger context, and so on. Any fundamental theory of reality which purports to include consciousness has to include this whole, it can’t just talk about atomized sensory qualia.
Second, any theory which says that the elementary degrees of freedom in a conscious state correspond to averaged collective physical degrees of freedom will have to involve property dualism. That’s because it’s a many-to-one mapping (from physical states to conscious states), and a many-to-one mapping can’t be an identity.
All that is the starting point for my line of thought, which is an attempt to avoid property dualism. I want to have something in my mathematical theory of reality which simply is the bearer of conscious states, has the properties and structure of a conscious whole, and is appropriately located in the causal chain. Since the mathematics describing a configuration of particles in space seems very unpromising for such a reinterpretation; and since our physics is quantum mechanics anyway, and the formalism of quantum mechanics contains entangled wavefunctions that can’t be factorized into localized wavefunctions, it’s quite natural to look for these conscious wholes in some form of QM where entanglement is ontological. However, since consciousness is in the brain and causally relevant, this implies that there must be a functionally relevant brain subsystem that is in a quantum coherent state.
That is the argument which leads me from “consciousness is real” to “there’s large-scale quantum entanglement in the brain”. Given the physics we have, it’s the only way I see to avoid property dualism, and it’s still just a starting point, on every level: mathematically, ontologically, and of course neurobiologically. But that is the argument you should be scrutinizing. What’s at stake in some of our specific exchanges may be a little obscure, so I wanted to set down the main argument in one piece, in one place, so you could see what you’re dealing with.
I will lay down the main thing convincing me that you’re correct.
Consider the three statements:
“there’s a large-scale quantum entanglement in the brain”
“consciousness is real”
“Mitchell Porter says that consciousness is real.”
Your inference requires that 1 and 2 are correlated. It is non-negotiable that 2 or 3 are correlated. There is no special connection between 1 and 3 that would make them uncorrelated.
However, 1 and 3 are both clearly-defined physical statements, and there is no physical mechanism for their correlation. We conclude that they are uncorrelated. We conclude that 1 and 2 are uncorrelated.
It’s almost a month since we started this discussion, and it’s a bit of a struggle to remember what’s important and what’s incidental. So first, a back-to-basics statement from me.
Colors do exist, appearances do exist; that’s nonnegotiable. That they do not exist in an ontology of “nothing but particles in space” is also, fundamentally, nonnegotiable. I will engage in debates as to whether this is so, but only because people are so amazingly reluctant to see it, and the implication that their favorite materialistic theories of mind actually involve property dualism, in which color (for example) is tied to a particular structure or behavior of particles in the brain, but can’t be identified with it.
We aren’t like the ancient atomists who only had an informal concept of the world as atoms in a void, we have mathematical theories of physics, so a logical further question is whether these mathematical theories can be interpreted so that some of the entities they posit can be identified with color, with “experiences”, and so on.
Here I’d say there are two further important facts. First, an experience is a whole and has to be tackled as a whole. Patches of color are just a part of a multi-sensory whole, which in turn is just the sensory aspect of an experience which also has a conceptual element, temporal flow, a cognitive frame locating current events in a larger context, and so on. Any fundamental theory of reality which purports to include consciousness has to include this whole, it can’t just talk about atomized sensory qualia.
Second, any theory which says that the elementary degrees of freedom in a conscious state correspond to averaged collective physical degrees of freedom will have to involve property dualism. That’s because it’s a many-to-one mapping (from physical states to conscious states), and a many-to-one mapping can’t be an identity.
All that is the starting point for my line of thought, which is an attempt to avoid property dualism. I want to have something in my mathematical theory of reality which simply is the bearer of conscious states, has the properties and structure of a conscious whole, and is appropriately located in the causal chain. Since the mathematics describing a configuration of particles in space seems very unpromising for such a reinterpretation; and since our physics is quantum mechanics anyway, and the formalism of quantum mechanics contains entangled wavefunctions that can’t be factorized into localized wavefunctions, it’s quite natural to look for these conscious wholes in some form of QM where entanglement is ontological. However, since consciousness is in the brain and causally relevant, this implies that there must be a functionally relevant brain subsystem that is in a quantum coherent state.
That is the argument which leads me from “consciousness is real” to “there’s large-scale quantum entanglement in the brain”. Given the physics we have, it’s the only way I see to avoid property dualism, and it’s still just a starting point, on every level: mathematically, ontologically, and of course neurobiologically. But that is the argument you should be scrutinizing. What’s at stake in some of our specific exchanges may be a little obscure, so I wanted to set down the main argument in one piece, in one place, so you could see what you’re dealing with.
I will lay down the main thing convincing me that you’re correct.
Consider the three statements:
“there’s a large-scale quantum entanglement in the brain”
“consciousness is real”
“Mitchell Porter says that consciousness is real.”
Your inference requires that 1 and 2 are correlated. It is non-negotiable that 2 or 3 are correlated. There is no special connection between 1 and 3 that would make them uncorrelated.
However, 1 and 3 are both clearly-defined physical statements, and there is no physical mechanism for their correlation. We conclude that they are uncorrelated. We conclude that 1 and 2 are uncorrelated.