I find Bayesian probability to be meaningless unless you connect it to a pseudo-frequentist interpretation somehow. Sure, you can say “Bayesian probability measures my subjective belief in something”, but in that case, what does having a 20% subjective belief in something actually mean, and how’s it different from having an 80% subjective belief? You need some scheme of translating it from a meaningless number to an expectation, and all such translations (e.g. in terms of betting behavior) always end up being pseudo-frequentist somehow.
The traditional way of defining the degree of a belief held by some agent is by finding what the agent thinks is a fair wager on the proposition. Is that pseudo-frequentist in a way I’m not seeing?
I find Bayesian probability to be meaningless unless you connect it to a pseudo-frequentist interpretation somehow. Sure, you can say “Bayesian probability measures my subjective belief in something”, but in that case, what does having a 20% subjective belief in something actually mean, and how’s it different from having an 80% subjective belief? You need some scheme of translating it from a meaningless number to an expectation, and all such translations (e.g. in terms of betting behavior) always end up being pseudo-frequentist somehow.
The traditional way of defining the degree of a belief held by some agent is by finding what the agent thinks is a fair wager on the proposition. Is that pseudo-frequentist in a way I’m not seeing?