I was always under the impression that what thwarted his hypothesis was the rise of effective and widespread birth control. I remember reading one of his works and noting that it was operating on the assumption that, to reduce birthrate to sustainable levels, sex would have to be reduced, and that was unlikely. It is unlikely, but it’s also mostly decoupled from childbirth now, at least in the developed world.
I was always under the impression that what thwarted his hypothesis was the rise of effective and widespread birth control. I remember reading one of his works and noting that it was operating on the assumption that, to reduce birthrate to sustainable levels, sex would have to be reduced, and that was unlikely. It is unlikely, but it’s also mostly decoupled from childbirth now, at least in the developed world.
Have I misinterpreted something here?
I believe he considered the possibility of birth control, referring to it as “immorality”.