I’ve read this story before, including and originally here on LW, but for some reason this time it got me thinking: I’ve never seen a discussion about what this tradition meant for early Christianity, before the Christians decided to just declare (supposedly after God sent Peter a vision, an argument that only works by assuming the conclusion) that the old laws no longer applied to them? After all, the Rabbi Yeshua ben Joseph (as the Gospels sometimes called him) explicitly declared the miracles he performed to be a necessary reason for why not believing in him was a sin.
Do we know the tradition predates Christianity separating from Judaism? The particular story is later.
In fact, it seems at least possible (but I don’t know how plausible) that the causation is the other way around: the story is supposed to tell the readers that Rabbi Yeshua’s miracles don’t prove he’s right either.
I’ve read this story before, including and originally here on LW, but for some reason this time it got me thinking: I’ve never seen a discussion about what this tradition meant for early Christianity, before the Christians decided to just declare (supposedly after God sent Peter a vision, an argument that only works by assuming the conclusion) that the old laws no longer applied to them? After all, the Rabbi Yeshua ben Joseph (as the Gospels sometimes called him) explicitly declared the miracles he performed to be a necessary reason for why not believing in him was a sin.
Do we know the tradition predates Christianity separating from Judaism? The particular story is later.
In fact, it seems at least possible (but I don’t know how plausible) that the causation is the other way around: the story is supposed to tell the readers that Rabbi Yeshua’s miracles don’t prove he’s right either.