Partly for the reasons outlined in my comment here. Mainly the following section:
Even under the most hardcore determinism and assuming immutable agents, they can be classified into those that would and those that wouldn’t have performed that act and so there is definitely some sort of distinction to be made.
In another comment (that I’m not finding after some minutes of search) I outline why this distinction is one that should be (and is) called moral culpability for all practical and most philosophical purposes. The few exceptions aren’t relevant here, since even one counterexample renders the argument invalid.
Yeah, seems like it fails mainly on 1, though I think that depends on whether you accept the meaning of “could not have done otherwise” implied by 2⁄3. But if you accept a meaning that makes 1 true (or, at least, less obviously false), then the argument is no longer valid.
Yes, an obvious flaw is that 1 is obviously false. Though also 2 is false depending upon exactly how you view the term “a person”.
Why is (1) obviously false?
Partly for the reasons outlined in my comment here. Mainly the following section:
In another comment (that I’m not finding after some minutes of search) I outline why this distinction is one that should be (and is) called moral culpability for all practical and most philosophical purposes. The few exceptions aren’t relevant here, since even one counterexample renders the argument invalid.
Yeah, seems like it fails mainly on 1, though I think that depends on whether you accept the meaning of “could not have done otherwise” implied by 2⁄3. But if you accept a meaning that makes 1 true (or, at least, less obviously false), then the argument is no longer valid.