Well, the only debates I’m claiming to definitively settle are the philosophical ones about “what does probability really mean?”, “are 0 and 1 really probabilities?” and suchlike, over which I’ve seen enough electrons spilled that I considered it well worth trying to put them to rest.
But in a typical inductive scenario, it seems to me that since we can’t work directly with F, whereas we can work directly with B, Bayesian reasoning is the appropriate tool to use. Do you have any counterexamples in mind where the two approaches give different answers and the difference can’t be resolved by noting that they aren’t answering the same question?
Do you have any counterexamples in mind where the two approaches give different answers and the difference can’t be resolved by noting that they aren’t answering the same question?
Well, the only debates I’m claiming to definitively settle are the philosophical ones about “what does probability really mean?”, “are 0 and 1 really probabilities?” and suchlike, over which I’ve seen enough electrons spilled that I considered it well worth trying to put them to rest.
But in a typical inductive scenario, it seems to me that since we can’t work directly with F, whereas we can work directly with B, Bayesian reasoning is the appropriate tool to use. Do you have any counterexamples in mind where the two approaches give different answers and the difference can’t be resolved by noting that they aren’t answering the same question?
Well, no, but but proponents of F may disagree.