Where is it written that if a reasoned argument reaches a conclusion that an individual does not like, that this proves that the reasoned argument must be flawed? People have an annoying tendency of asserting that our “moral intuitions” are so flawless that if any reasoned argument comes into conflict with a moral intuition that the moral intuition must be preserved.
I hold that moral intuitions are nothing but learned prejudices. Historic examples from slavery to the divine right of kings to tortured confessions of witchcraft or Judaism to the subjugation of women to genocide all point to the fallibility of these ‘moral intuitions’. There is absolutely no sense to the claim that its conclusions are to be adopted before those of a reasoned argument.
In fact, the prejudice that we have ‘moral intuitions’ that are superior to any type of reasoned argument is a groundless conceit – something children should be warned against the instant they can understand the warning.
-- Alonzo Fyfe