Interesting. I don’t think that explains everything though. It explains the beginning, but as MS-DOS had more and more success, it became more and more expensive for IBM to pay royalties to Microsoft. I feel like at some point it would become cheaper for IBM to invest in their own OS instead of continuing to pay royalties to Microsoft.
Meaning software was written that targets MS-DOS so if a computer didn’t have MS-DOS the software wouldn’t work, and so there was a large demand for MS-DOS? Can’t the software vendor just ship a compiled version of their software? Or their software bundled with an assembler for whatever OS?
Interesting. I don’t think that explains everything though. It explains the beginning, but as MS-DOS had more and more success, it became more and more expensive for IBM to pay royalties to Microsoft. I feel like at some point it would become cheaper for IBM to invest in their own OS instead of continuing to pay royalties to Microsoft.
MS used the IBM deal to sell their OS to a bunch of other computer makers. At that point, IBM switching would have meant an incompatible OS.
Meaning software was written that targets MS-DOS so if a computer didn’t have MS-DOS the software wouldn’t work, and so there was a large demand for MS-DOS? Can’t the software vendor just ship a compiled version of their software? Or their software bundled with an assembler for whatever OS?