The “no backwards causality” argument seems like a case of conflation of correlation and causation. Your decision doesn’t retroactively cause Omega to fill the boxes in a certain way; some prior state of the world causes your thought processes and Omega’s prediction, and the correlation is exactly or almost exactly 1.
EDIT: Correlation coefficients don’t work like that, but whatever. You get what I mean.
The “no backwards causality” argument seems like a case of conflation of correlation and causation. Your decision doesn’t retroactively cause Omega to fill the boxes in a certain way; some prior state of the world causes your thought processes and Omega’s prediction, and the correlation is exactly or almost exactly 1.
EDIT: Correlation coefficients don’t work like that, but whatever. You get what I mean.