I didn’t say it did. I said that P(Heads | Monday) = P(Tails | Monday) = 1⁄2, because it’s determined by a fair coin flip that’s yet to happen. This is in contrast to the standard halfer position, where P(Heads | Monday) > 1⁄2, and P(Tails | Monday) < 1⁄2. Everyone agrees that P(Heads | Monday) + P(Tails | Monday) = 1.
Or are you disagreeing with the calculation?
P(Heads) = P(Monday) P(Heads | Monday) + P(Tuesday) P(Heads | Tuesday) is just Baye’s theorem.
P(Heads | Tuesday) = 0, because if Beauty is awake on Tuesday then the coin must have landed tails.
P(Heads | Monday) = 1⁄2 by the initial reasoning.
Then P(Monday) = 2 * P(Heads) by a teeny amount of algebra.
I’d like to ask a question about the Sleeping Beauty problem for someone that thinks that 1⁄2 is an acceptable answer.
Suppose the coin isn’t flipped until after the interview on Monday, and Beauty is asked the probability that the coin has or will land heads. Does this change the problem, even though Beauty is woken up on Monday regardless? It seems to me to obviously be equivalent, but perhaps other people disagree?
If you accept that these problems are equivalent, then you know that P(Heads | Monday) = P(Tails | Monday) = 1⁄2, since if it’s Monday then a fair coin is about to be flipped. From this we can learn that P(Monday) = 2 * P(Heads), by the calculation below.
This is inconsistent with the halfer position, because if P(Heads) = 1⁄2, then P(Monday) = 2 * 1⁄2 = 1.
EDIT: The calculation is that P(Heads) = P(Monday) P(Heads | Monday) + P(Tuesday) P(Heads | Tuesday) = 1⁄2 P(Monday) + 0 P(Tuesday), so P(Monday) = 2 * P(Heads).