This is a particularly bad example of post-hoc-ergo-propter-hoc thinking—everything that happened between 1000 BCE and 1800 CE somewhere near Britain has a few just-so stories how it caused Industrial Revolution.
But Industrial Revolution happened so far later that it doesn’t make any sense; and it didn’t look anything like what you’re suggesting—major increase in agricultural productivity only happened in 1700s—far far after Black Death; and agriculture had local surpluses capable of sustaining large urban populations since pretty much Neolithic—a single farmer given enough good land and decent level of capital can easily produce far more than he needs. By taxes, rents, forced labour or some other measure you generate as high food surplus as you desire. So essentially every major urban center in history imported massive amount of food from rural regions. To avoid looking far Athens and Rome are two example of huge well-known ancient grain importers for which such imports were a very important part of foreign politics. Serfdom or lack of it has nothing to do with capability of creating food surpluses.
Also—England was one of the countries least affected by Black Death, so if Black Death caused something in England, it would have had similar effect in most countries which were as badly affected—and that’s very definitely not true. On the other hand some other countries least affected by Black Death of Eastern Europe moved towards greater serfdom (and contrary to what you imply—these serf-based economies were major food exporters feeding centers of Industrial Revolution in Western Europe), so there’s no correlation here either.
tl;dr—serfdom and food surpluses are uncorrelated; increases in food surpluses happened many centuries too late; you cannot claim Black Death caused something in less affected country like England while mysteriously it didn’t in far more affected countries
This is a particularly bad example of post-hoc-ergo-propter-hoc thinking—everything that happened between 1000 BCE and 1800 CE somewhere near Britain has a few just-so stories how it caused Industrial Revolution.
But Industrial Revolution happened so far later that it doesn’t make any sense; and it didn’t look anything like what you’re suggesting—major increase in agricultural productivity only happened in 1700s—far far after Black Death; and agriculture had local surpluses capable of sustaining large urban populations since pretty much Neolithic—a single farmer given enough good land and decent level of capital can easily produce far more than he needs. By taxes, rents, forced labour or some other measure you generate as high food surplus as you desire. So essentially every major urban center in history imported massive amount of food from rural regions. To avoid looking far Athens and Rome are two example of huge well-known ancient grain importers for which such imports were a very important part of foreign politics. Serfdom or lack of it has nothing to do with capability of creating food surpluses.
Also—England was one of the countries least affected by Black Death, so if Black Death caused something in England, it would have had similar effect in most countries which were as badly affected—and that’s very definitely not true. On the other hand some other countries least affected by Black Death of Eastern Europe moved towards greater serfdom (and contrary to what you imply—these serf-based economies were major food exporters feeding centers of Industrial Revolution in Western Europe), so there’s no correlation here either.
tl;dr—serfdom and food surpluses are uncorrelated; increases in food surpluses happened many centuries too late; you cannot claim Black Death caused something in less affected country like England while mysteriously it didn’t in far more affected countries