I am just a bit confused that if only 1 of N people faces a certain choice it becomes 1/N times more unlikely to be factual.
That only 1 of N people face the choice doesn’t make it less likely that the choice exists, it makes less likely the conjunction of the choice existing, and that you are the one that makes the choice.
That only 1 of N people face the choice doesn’t make it less likely that the choice exists, it makes less likely the conjunction of the choice existing, and that you are the one that makes the choice.
Each of the people in question could be claimed (by the mugger) to be making this exact same choice.