Experiments have shown that many people prefer (1A) to (1B) and (2B) to (2A)...So independence implies that anyone that prefers (1A) to (1B) must also prefer (2B) to (2A).
Shouldn’t independence have people who prefer (1A) to (1B) prefer (2A) to (2B)?
EDIT:
But because the direct approach is very recent (Peterson 2008; Cozic 2011), and only time will show whether it can stand up to professional criticism.
Either the word “because” or “and” is out of place here.
I only notice these things because this FAQ is great and I’m trying to understand every detail that I can.
Also,
Shouldn’t independence have people who prefer (1A) to (1B) prefer (2A) to (2B)?
EDIT:
Either the word “because” or “and” is out of place here.
I only notice these things because this FAQ is great and I’m trying to understand every detail that I can.
Thanks Pinyaka, changed for next edit (and glad to hear you’re finding it useful).