It’s not your position that I object to, but rather your argument for it.
How does excusing the Maquis’ actions against the Germans or Vichy France necessitate that we should be “more tolerant” towards violence against modern goverments?
It seems to me that the different nature and different methods of the former and latter governments means that we can treat violence against it likewise differently—even without any discussion of the ends of this violence.
It’s not your position that I object to, but rather your argument for it.
How does excusing the Maquis’ actions against the Germans or Vichy France necessitate that we should be “more tolerant” towards violence against modern goverments?
It seems to me that the different nature and different methods of the former and latter governments means that we can treat violence against it likewise differently—even without any discussion of the ends of this violence.