I was actually talking about what I see as the real historical, cultural process by which the Court reached its decision. (Do you not think the CRA influenced personal opinions about equality?) And I’m saying even this process has some legal support.
But I must stress that the necessary interpretation by the courts happened in the 1970s—or at least that would have sufficed—and thus focusing on this 2015 ruling makes very little sense.
I was actually talking about what I see as the real historical, cultural process by which the Court reached its decision. (Do you not think the CRA influenced personal opinions about equality?) And I’m saying even this process has some legal support.
But I must stress that the necessary interpretation by the courts happened in the 1970s—or at least that would have sufficed—and thus focusing on this 2015 ruling makes very little sense.
I’m no longer sure what is our point of disagreement.