In the English language, the pronoun “his” (and similarly “him,” “her,” “it,” etc.) always refers to the nearest possible preceding sensible noun.
Maybe where your from. In English where I’m at, Jim will use ‘him’ to refer to Bob if he wants.
Or am I not using the common definitions?
An answer of ‘no’ to that question would normally be interpreted “I am still beating my wife”.
Descriptivism FTW.
Maybe where your from. In English where I’m at, Jim will use ‘him’ to refer to Bob if he wants.
An answer of ‘no’ to that question would normally be interpreted “I am still beating my wife”.
Descriptivism FTW.