ok, the main book is “Second language learning theories” by Rosamond Mitchell and Florence Myles, p32-33 in my library copy. The main studies you’ll want to fact check are by Dulay and Burt (various years and publications) for children acquiriing a second language. Bailey, Madden and Krashen (1974) for the Dulay and Burt results replicated in adults, and (from a different textbook) Zobl and Liceras “functional categories and acquisition order” (1994) in the journal language learning which I seem to remember provides a good summary of the studies to date
I would expect that the conclusion doesn’t hold when comparing with learners speaking a closely related vs. a distant or unrelated language.
Probably not, no, but I did find it striking that the results held across such typologically different languages. For example, English has plenty of derivational morphology and so do most European languages, but most Asian languages don’t. But the order or acquisition was still pretty much the same.
Another issue is how “acquisition” is defined
I believe the bar for ‘acquired’ is usually set somewhere around 80-95% accuracy, but I haven’t looked into this aspect much. Another sensible way of measuring it would be perfect or near-perfect use in common contexts, and ok accuracy in less common contexts
ok, the main book is “Second language learning theories” by Rosamond Mitchell and Florence Myles, p32-33 in my library copy. The main studies you’ll want to fact check are by Dulay and Burt (various years and publications) for children acquiriing a second language. Bailey, Madden and Krashen (1974) for the Dulay and Burt results replicated in adults, and (from a different textbook) Zobl and Liceras “functional categories and acquisition order” (1994) in the journal language learning which I seem to remember provides a good summary of the studies to date
Probably not, no, but I did find it striking that the results held across such typologically different languages. For example, English has plenty of derivational morphology and so do most European languages, but most Asian languages don’t. But the order or acquisition was still pretty much the same.
I believe the bar for ‘acquired’ is usually set somewhere around 80-95% accuracy, but I haven’t looked into this aspect much. Another sensible way of measuring it would be perfect or near-perfect use in common contexts, and ok accuracy in less common contexts
Thanks for the references!