I’m curious what you think about the historical contingency argument against this position (i.e. if MWI had come first...). I take it you’d say that which one of two empirically equivalent models is “adopted” can indeed sometimes (always?) depend on which one came first. If you would indeed say this, whence the difference between old and new? Is the new model inferior to the old one in virtue of being new? Or in virtue of being new and being invented while the old one was around? Or because newness is usually an indicator of retrofitting theory to data? Etc.
I must be really bad at expressing my points. Again, what really matters is whether the two models make different predictions. Failing that, whichever one is easier to use (simpler math) is better. The historical issues are for historians, not physicists.
The MWI uses the exact same math as the orthodox approach, so there is no reason to prefer it over any other interpretation.
I’m curious what you think about the historical contingency argument against this position (i.e. if MWI had come first...). I take it you’d say that which one of two empirically equivalent models is “adopted” can indeed sometimes (always?) depend on which one came first. If you would indeed say this, whence the difference between old and new? Is the new model inferior to the old one in virtue of being new? Or in virtue of being new and being invented while the old one was around? Or because newness is usually an indicator of retrofitting theory to data? Etc.
I must be really bad at expressing my points. Again, what really matters is whether the two models make different predictions. Failing that, whichever one is easier to use (simpler math) is better. The historical issues are for historians, not physicists.
The MWI uses the exact same math as the orthodox approach, so there is no reason to prefer it over any other interpretation.