I’m not an expert so I might well be misunderstanding it, but that paper seems to classify and compare two wild strains, not modify them? Maybe I’m missing something, but what is the relation with omicron?
I think the conjecture is that the virus would have mutated on its own, in the presence of antibodies. But on second thought, maybe that’s relatively unrealistic (as a possible explanation for Omicron), because we’d expect much more mutation in the wild where there are much higher quantities of the virus?
I think the conjecture is that the virus would have mutated on its own, in the presence of antibodies. But on second thought, maybe that’s relatively unrealistic (as a possible explanation for Omicron), because we’d expect much more mutation in the wild where there are much higher quantities of the virus?