Is it plausible that the two different sources of valuation are actually one source? For example, could On Point valuations have formed the basis of the CARES Act filings, or vice versa, or both used data from a common source?
It also seems likely that any borrower has a strong incentive to talk up the value of their collateral, especially so if they get to choose who has access to the data used for valuations.
Is it plausible that the two different sources of valuation are actually one source? For example, could On Point valuations have formed the basis of the CARES Act filings, or vice versa, or both used data from a common source?
It also seems likely that any borrower has a strong incentive to talk up the value of their collateral, especially so if they get to choose who has access to the data used for valuations.