I may be missing something here --
Occam’s Razor is “entities must not be multiplied beyond necessity” (entia non sunt multiplicanda praeter necessitatem)
NOT "The simplest explanation that fits the facts."
-- but isn’t the post using the first definition anyway? So even if he explicitly wrote the second definition instead of the first, he was clearly aware of the first since that’s what corresponds with his argument.
I may be missing something here -- Occam’s Razor is “entities must not be multiplied beyond necessity” (entia non sunt multiplicanda praeter necessitatem)
-- but isn’t the post using the first definition anyway? So even if he explicitly wrote the second definition instead of the first, he was clearly aware of the first since that’s what corresponds with his argument.