Case 2 seems far, far more likely than case 3, and without a much more specific definition of “technological maturity”, I can’t make any statement on 1. Why does case 2 seem more likely than 3?
“Technical maturity” as used in the first disjunct means “capable of running high-fidelity ancestor simulations”. So, it sounds like you are arguing for the 1st disjunct (or something very close to it) rather than the second, since you are arguing that, due to energy constraints, a civilization like ours would be incapable of reaching technological maturity.
Yes, then I’m arguing that case 1 cannot happen. Although I find it a little tediously tautological (and even more so reductive) to define technological maturity as being solely the technology that makes this disjunction make sense....
“Technical maturity” as used in the first disjunct means “capable of running high-fidelity ancestor simulations”. So, it sounds like you are arguing for the 1st disjunct (or something very close to it) rather than the second, since you are arguing that, due to energy constraints, a civilization like ours would be incapable of reaching technological maturity.
Yes, then I’m arguing that case 1 cannot happen. Although I find it a little tediously tautological (and even more so reductive) to define technological maturity as being solely the technology that makes this disjunction make sense....