I’ve heard somewhere that after you exclude divorced and widowed people, the correlation between being married and happiness entirely disappears. I tried regoogling it without success, but maybe more effort will get you the original research.
FWIW, this seems inconsistent with the evidence presented in the paper linked here, and most of the other work I’ve seen. The omitted category in most regression analyses is “never married”, so I don’t really see how this would fly.
I’ve heard somewhere that after you exclude divorced and widowed people, the correlation between being married and happiness entirely disappears. I tried regoogling it without success, but maybe more effort will get you the original research.
FWIW, this seems inconsistent with the evidence presented in the paper linked here, and most of the other work I’ve seen. The omitted category in most regression analyses is “never married”, so I don’t really see how this would fly.