we intended it to mean “the law applicable at the time the contract is signed”.
Do we have any legal proof that this is the definition that both OpenAI and the DoW agreed on? I could pretty easily see “applicable law” being ‘misinterpreted’ as “the law as of the time of the action”.
Do we have any legal proof that this is the definition that both OpenAI and the DoW agreed on? I could pretty easily see “applicable law” being ‘misinterpreted’ as “the law as of the time of the action”.