Someone points out that in the case of one firm and one person, it’s mathematically impossible to get perfect price discrimination because the owner’s willingness to spend will be arbitrarily high if all the profits flow back to them. Not sure what this means for the larger case.
Someone points out that in the case of one firm and one person, it’s mathematically impossible to get perfect price discrimination because the owner’s willingness to spend will be arbitrarily high if all the profits flow back to them. Not sure what this means for the larger case.