I’m willing to credit that increased velocity of money by itself made aristocracy untenable post-industrialization. Increased ease of measurement is therefore superfluous as an explanation.
Why believe we’ve ever had a meritocracy—that is, outside the high [real/underlying] money velocities of the late 19th and early 20th centuries [and the trivial feudal meritocracy of heredity]?
I’m willing to credit that increased velocity of money by itself made aristocracy untenable post-industrialization. Increased ease of measurement is therefore superfluous as an explanation.
Why believe we’ve ever had a meritocracy—that is, outside the high [real/underlying] money velocities of the late 19th and early 20th centuries [and the trivial feudal meritocracy of heredity]?