Do very many Catholics assassinate government-funded mass murdering genocidaires? I refer of course to abortion clinics.
No, not really. According to Le Wik, only 8 people (less than 1 every 2 years) in the US have been killed as the result of “anti-abortion violence” since 1993. Two of the actual killings were attributed to Catholics (although another did try to ram an abortion clinic with his vehicle which resulted in no injuries but did cause some property damage).
In any case, it seems clear that “anti-abortion violence” occurs with much greater frequency in fiction than in reality. But then again, this shouldn’t surprise us given the predominance of the Hollywood Atheist and Straw-Vulcan archetypes.
EDIT: I made a factual correction and added context.
No; I made a mistake. Eric Robert Rudolph and James Charles Kopp (who, interestingly, had a masters degree in embryology, so was something of a “domain expert”) were self-identified Roman Catholics. Also, it is tricky determining who is or is not of a particular denomination. For instance, Paul Jennings Hill was excommunicated before commiting murder. Should that count in favor of or against the church that excommunicated him (in this case, Presbyterianism)? I’m not sure.
Should that count in favor of or against the church that excommunicated him (in this case, Presbyterianism)?
Of course in favor.
Assuming conservation of evidence, if there exists an action that would count against them (such as declaring him a saint), there must also exist an action that would count in favor of them. So what exactly were they supposed to do—burn him at a stake?
EDIT: Oops, now I see that the question can refer to the whole “former membership + excommunication” package, not just the “excommunication” part. Still, unless other churches had excommunicated such people (before the murder, or at least after), the fact that this one did is an evidence in favor or hypothesis that they disagree with such acts.
Do very many Catholics assassinate government-funded mass murdering genocidaires? I refer of course to abortion clinics.
No, not really. According to Le Wik, only 8 people (less than 1 every 2 years) in the US have been killed as the result of “anti-abortion violence” since 1993. Two of the actual killings were attributed to Catholics (although another did try to ram an abortion clinic with his vehicle which resulted in no injuries but did cause some property damage).
In any case, it seems clear that “anti-abortion violence” occurs with much greater frequency in fiction than in reality. But then again, this shouldn’t surprise us given the predominance of the Hollywood Atheist and Straw-Vulcan archetypes.
EDIT: I made a factual correction and added context.
All the murderers were Protestants?
No; I made a mistake. Eric Robert Rudolph and James Charles Kopp (who, interestingly, had a masters degree in embryology, so was something of a “domain expert”) were self-identified Roman Catholics. Also, it is tricky determining who is or is not of a particular denomination. For instance, Paul Jennings Hill was excommunicated before commiting murder. Should that count in favor of or against the church that excommunicated him (in this case, Presbyterianism)? I’m not sure.
Of course in favor.
Assuming conservation of evidence, if there exists an action that would count against them (such as declaring him a saint), there must also exist an action that would count in favor of them. So what exactly were they supposed to do—burn him at a stake?
EDIT: Oops, now I see that the question can refer to the whole “former membership + excommunication” package, not just the “excommunication” part. Still, unless other churches had excommunicated such people (before the murder, or at least after), the fact that this one did is an evidence in favor or hypothesis that they disagree with such acts.