How else would they estimate how much emotion people feel but by how much they can observe?
Do they have measurements? I don’t care much who has thought about the issue—I’ll go with those who have measured it, and the prima facie evidence supports the original claim in my eyes.
How else would they estimate how much emotion people feel but by how much they can observe?
Look at the people who you know privately, and how much emotion you think they actually experience, vs. how much emotion they show in public, and extrapolate.
Noisy because of individual variations, but it’s a starting point. The proposition certainly isn’t impossible.
As for surveys, I’d probably go with observation over self report. The possibility of accurate observation is a necessary but not sufficient condition for an expectation that self reports would be properly normalized.
How else would they estimate how much emotion people feel but by how much they can observe?
Do they have measurements? I don’t care much who has thought about the issue—I’ll go with those who have measured it, and the prima facie evidence supports the original claim in my eyes.
Look at the people who you know privately, and how much emotion you think they actually experience, vs. how much emotion they show in public, and extrapolate.
Noisy because of individual variations, but it’s a starting point. The proposition certainly isn’t impossible.
fMRIs. Or anonymous surveys, under the assumption that people lie less on them than the rest of the time.
Anyone got those FMRI measurements?
As for surveys, I’d probably go with observation over self report. The possibility of accurate observation is a necessary but not sufficient condition for an expectation that self reports would be properly normalized.