This is confusing again. Suppose you have two competing hypotheses, such as “there is a finite number of primes” and “there is an infinite number of primes”. To be considered scientific, either of them must be falsifiable in principle, but of course neither can be proved.
It’s been known for two thousand years that there are infinitely many primes.
It’s been known for two thousand years that there are infinitely many primes.
https://primes.utm.edu/notes/proofs/infinite/euclids.html