My recollection is that The existence of infinite sets is neither proven nor contradicted by the basic operation available in set theory. You need an additional axiom to get them, and if you want it the additional axiom is consistent with the prior ones.
This means that if the above argument were formalized, there must be a step which effectively assumes no infinites. Likely in a definition of a term.
My recollection is that The existence of infinite sets is neither proven nor contradicted by the basic operation available in set theory. You need an additional axiom to get them, and if you want it the additional axiom is consistent with the prior ones.
This means that if the above argument were formalized, there must be a step which effectively assumes no infinites. Likely in a definition of a term.