For what it is worth, I don’t think “entitled” is feminist jargon.
(Not exclusively, no. That is merely where your intended usage is most common and the most relevant to the context.)
The strong negative moral connotations you intend when you use that word are not universally associated with the word itself. It is often used very differently by subcultures. That is, “entitled” is also used as a non-morally-loaded description and even as a compliment. As such sometimes someone (in this case Eugine) may inquire about your meaning, giving you the chance to make your claim clear, as you have done here.
Sure, the negative connotation applies only when the implicit premise of “lack of moral right” is also present. I think the presence of that implicit premise can be determined by context, like my example at the end of my post.
I didn’t write it that way in my own response to Eugine because my experience is that discussions about object-level brute moral facts lead down an irrational rabbit hole in this venue.
Sure, the negative connotation applies only when the implicit premise of “lack of moral right” is also present. I think the presence of that implicit premise can be determined by context, like my example at the end of my post.
I agree, and certainly I had no trouble following your meaning. Mind you I tend to distance myself from such utterances because they convey a way of thinking about morality that I must emulate as if speaking a foreign language.
I didn’t write it that way in my own response to Eugine because my experience is that discussions about object-level brute moral facts lead down an irrational rabbit hole in this venue.
(Not exclusively, no. That is merely where your intended usage is most common and the most relevant to the context.)
The strong negative moral connotations you intend when you use that word are not universally associated with the word itself. It is often used very differently by subcultures. That is, “entitled” is also used as a non-morally-loaded description and even as a compliment. As such sometimes someone (in this case Eugine) may inquire about your meaning, giving you the chance to make your claim clear, as you have done here.
Sure, the negative connotation applies only when the implicit premise of “lack of moral right” is also present. I think the presence of that implicit premise can be determined by context, like my example at the end of my post.
I didn’t write it that way in my own response to Eugine because my experience is that discussions about object-level brute moral facts lead down an irrational rabbit hole in this venue.
I agree, and certainly I had no trouble following your meaning. Mind you I tend to distance myself from such utterances because they convey a way of thinking about morality that I must emulate as if speaking a foreign language.
Absolutely.